Test Bank for Invitation to the Life Span, 2nd Edition : Kathleen Stassen Berger

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Multiple-Choice Questions

1. Each molecule of DNA is called a(n):
A) chromosome.
B) RNA.
C) gene.
D) zygote.
2. Each human body cell contains:
A) 46 pairs of chromosomes.
B) 46 chromosomes.
C) 23 chromosomes.
D) 20 pairs of chromosomes.
3. Each reproductive cell contains:
A) 46 pairs of chromosomes.
B) 46 chromosomes.
C) 23 chromosomes.
D) 20 pairs of chromosomes.
4. Reproductive cells are called:
A) chromosomes.
B) zygotes.
C) DNA.
D) gametes.
5. The total collection of genes that an individual has is called his or her:
A) phenotype.
B) allele.
C) genotype.
D) gamete.
6. Each individual inherits 23 chromosomes from their mother and 23 chromosomes from their father. In addition, epigenetic effects create an individual’s appearance and behavior to create a:
A) phenotype.
B) allele.
C) genotype.
D) gamete.
7. Timur and Juan are playing basketball. Timur shoots the ball and Juan blocks the shot. Timur says, “Wow, I didn’t realize how tall you were until you did that!” Timur’s comment refers to Juan’s:
A) phenotype.
B) allele.
C) genotype.
D) gamete.
8. Brothers and sisters from the same parents share only half the same genes, making the possible combinations:
A) in the hundreds.
B) in the thousands.
C) in the tens of thousands.
D) in the millions.
9. Genetic _____ distinguishes each person and allows for adaptation.
A) mapping
B) diversity
C) similarities
D) testing
10. The name of the full set of genes that provide the instructions for making living organisms is the:
A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) genome.
D) allele.
11. Each human has a total of about _____ genes.
A) 10,000-13,000
B) 20,000-23,000
C) 30,000-33,000
D) 40,000-43,000
12. On the 23rd set of chromosomes, males have:
A) two X chromosomes.
B) two Y chromosomes.
C) an X and a Y chromosome.
D) just a Y chromosome.
13. On the 23rd set of chromosomes, females have:
A) two X chromosomes.
B) two Y chromosomes
C) an X and a Y chromosome.
D) just a Y chromosome.
14. Michelle and Greg are having a baby and are hoping for a boy. Who is responsible for the determining the sex of the baby?
A) Michelle
B) Greg
C) both of them
D) neither of them
15. Which statement is true?
A) Male embryos are more vulnerable than female embryos therefore less likely to survive prenatally.
B) Female embryos are more vulnerable than male embryos therefore less likely to survive prenatally.
C) Male and female embryos are equally vulnerable prenatally making them equally likely to survive prenatally.
D) X sperm swim faster and reach the ovum first while the Y sperm is more resistant to genetic disorders.
16. Identical twins are also called _____ twins.
A) monozygotic
B) dizygotic
C) zygotic
D) gamete
17. Fraternal twins are also called _____ twins.
A) monozygotic
B) dizygotic
C) zygotic
D) gamete
18. Harold and Heather are twins. They are the result of:
A) One ovum fertilized by one sperm that split into two zygotes.
B) Two separate ova that were fertilized by two different sperms.
C) One ovum that was fertilized by two sperms.
D) Two ova that were fertilized by one sperm.
19. Justin and Jacob are identical twins. They are the result of:
A) One ovum fertilized by one sperm that split into two zygotes.
B) Two separate ova that were fertilized by two different sperms.
C) One ovum that was fertilized by two sperms.
D) Two ova that were fertilized by one sperm.
20. The _____ is a worldwide effort to map all human genes.
A) Hap Map
B) Apgar scale
C) Human Genome Project
D) Brazelton Assessment
21. Historically, who was blamed for not producing an offspring of a particular gender?
A) mothers only
B) fathers only
C) both mothers and fathers
D) fathers only if a girl was desired and a boy was born
22. Due to understanding more about the role of genes in determining the sex of a child, couples can select the sex of a child by all methods EXCEPT:
A) inactivating X or Y sperm before conception.
B) selecting only X eggs for fertilization.
C) aborting XX or XY fetuses.
D) undergoing in vitro fertilization and then inserting only male or female embryos.
23. When the effects of genes add up to make the phenotype, they are called _____ genes.
A) dominant
B) recessive
C) additive
D) nonadditive
24. Holly learned from her science teacher that her height resulted from about 180 genes, each contributing a tiny amount of genetic information. Holly learned that her height was due to:
A) additive genes.
B) dominant genes.
C) recessive genes.
D) nonadditive genes.
25. Brown-eyed Alma has a blue-eyed mother and a brown-eyed father. In this case, her brown eyes were determined by a _____ allele.
A) dominant
B) recessive
C) dominant-recessive
D) dizygotic
26. Lacy has a recessive gene in her genotype that is not expressed in her phenotype. She is a(n) _____ of that gene.
A) recipient
B) carrier
C) expressor
D) reactor
27. Michael is color-blind. His gene for color blindness is most likely a:
A) dominant gene on his X chromosome.
B) dominant gene on his Y chromosome.
C) recessive gene on his X chromosome.
D) recessive gene on his Y chromosome.
28. Almost every trait is _____, which means it is affected by many genes.
A) polygenic
B) nonadditive
C) X-linked
D) monozygotic
29. Cindy is doing a presentation on prenatal development and wants to present the three main periods of prenatal development in order from conception to birth. Cindy’s presentation uses the following order:
A) embryonic, germinal, and fetal.
B) fetal, embryonic, and germinal.
C) germinal, embryonic, and fetal.
D) germinal, fetal, and embryonic.
30. Many obstetricians date the onset of pregnancy from the date:
A) of conception.
B) of the woman’s last menstrual period.
C) of implantation.
D) when the woman had intercourse.
31. Before differentiation begins, the first cells of the zygote are called _____ cells.
A) germinal
B) stem
C) zygotic
D) reproduction
32. During the germinal period of prenatal development, some cells become part of the brain, some become part of the leg, and some become part of the stomach, etc. The term for this process is:
A) duplication.
B) division.
C) differentiation.
D) specialization.
33. During the germinal period, the first task of the zygote’s outer cells is:
A) differentiation.
B) duplication.
C) germination.
D) implantation.
34. The germinal period ends approximately _____ after conception.
A) 2 days
B) 3 months
C) 2 weeks
D) 12 weeks
35. About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a protective circle, or shell, that will become the:
A) placenta.
B) umbilical cord.
C) vernix.
D) infant.
36. What is the main function of the placenta?
A) screening out potentially harmful substances
B) exchanging blood between the mother and the developing embryo
C) protecting and surrounding the developing fetus
D) creating antibodies for the developing fetus
37. Around day 14 of the embryonic period, the _____ appears. It will eventually become the neural tube.
A) the stem cells
B) the spinal cord
C) the primitive streak
D) the placenta
38. The neural tube will become the:
A) reproductive organs.
B) intestinal tract.
C) backbone, legs, and arms.
D) brain and spinal cord.
39. The head begins to take shape in the _____ week after conception.
A) fourth
B) fifth
C) sixth
D) seventh
40. In the fourth week after conception, a miniscule blood vessel that is the start of the _____ system begins to pulsate.
A) respiratory
B) digestive
C) skeletal
D) cardiovascular
41. A woman who is pregnant is having an ultrasound done eight weeks into prenatal development. She is surprised by the size of the embryo’s head when she sees the image on the screen. The doctor reassures her that this is typical and due to the _____ pattern of development.
A) proximodistal
B) cephalocaudal
C) neurogenesis
D) synaptogenesis
42. Prenatally, development happens in a “near to far” pattern known as:
A) proximodistal.
B) cephalocaudal.
C) neurogenesis.
D) synaptogenesis.
43. The longest period of prenatal development is the _____ period.
A) embryonic
B) fetal
C) proximodistal
D) germinal
44. The third period of gestation is the _____ period.
A) zygotic
B) embryonic
C) germinal
D) fetal
45. In the _____ after conception, sex organs develop and are soon visible via ultrasound.
A) fourth week
B) ninth week
C) twelfth week
D) twentieth week
46. What happens to the brain during the fetal period of development?
A) It goes through a process of regeneration.
B) It begins to form and function.
C) Increases about six times in size.
D) The number of neurons decreases sixfold.
47. The age of viability is the time when the preterm newborn:
A) might survive outside the uterus.
B) begins to move.
C) will be born without defects.
D) has developed all its major organs.
48. Harry was a preterm newborn who was born after 26 weeks of prenatal development. He now is a healthy, happy 2-year-old. Harry’s ability to survive after being born so early was due in part to his reaching the:
A) term of postnatal development.
B) germinal period.
C) neurogenesis point.
D) age of viability.
49. On average, fetuses gain about _____ pounds during the last trimester of pregnancy, which brings the average birth weight to about 7.5 pounds.
A) 1.5 pound
B) 2.5 pounds
C) 4.5 pounds
D) 6.5 pounds
50. The critical factor in attaining the age of viability is:
A) weighing at least 5 pounds (2.3 kg).
B) having adequate brain development.
C) having functioning digestive and respiratory systems.
D) surviving at least 28 weeks past conception.
51. The _____ starts the sequence of events that prepares the fetus for delivery and starts labor.
A) fetal brain
B) maternal brain
C) placenta
D) germinal period
52. Full-term pregnancies typically last _____ from the date of conception.
A) 32 weeks
B) 34 weeks
C) 36 weeks
D) 38 weeks
53. In a first birth, the average length of active labor is:
A) several days.
B) about 12 hours.
C) about 8 hours.
D) a few minutes.
54. The Apgar scale is used at one minute and five minutes after birth to:
A) evaluate the newborn’s sensory abilities.
B) evaluate the health of the new mother.
C) help the mother recover from childbirth.
D) evaluate the health of the newborn.
55. A baby is assessed at one minute after birth according to the Apgar scale. Three of the five vital signs are good, but the baby is weak and inactive and grimaces. The two vital signs the medical team is concerned about are:
A) muscle tone and heartbeat.
B) respiratory effect and color.
C) muscle tone and reflex irritability.
D) reflex irritability and respiratory effect.
56. Virginia Apgar was a(n):
A) anesthesiologist.
B) labor and delivery nurse.
C) surgeon.
D) obstetrician.
57. In the third stage of labor, the:
A) cervix begins to dilate.
B) baby’s head moves into the birth canal.
C) mother experiences intense contractions.
D) placenta is delivered.
58. In the United States, more than _____ of births occur via C-section.
A) 1/3
B) 1/2
C) 2/3
D)

59. Compared to vaginal births, C-section births:
A) are less expensive.
B) increase the risk of complications.
C) usually take longer.
D) are less safe for the baby.
60. Epidurals, often used in hospital births to manage pain during childbirth, have been shown to:
A) help prevent unnecessary C-sections.
B) encourage breast-feeding from the beginning.
C) inhibit the newborn’s readiness to suck.
D) induce labor.
61. Which country has the highest rate of C-section births in the world?
A) Egypt
B) China
C) Chile
D) the United States
62. An alternative to giving birth in a hospital is to arrange to give birth at home. This option is especially popular in Europe, where home births appear to have:
A) more complications than those in hospitals.
B) fewer complications than those in hospitals.
C) an equal number of complications as those in hospitals.
D) an unknown number of complications, because no records are kept on home births.
63. Parents of newborn Renata are amazed at their daughter’s responsiveness and reflexes when a professional administers the:
A) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale.
B) Apgar scale.
C) Child Behavioral Checklist.
D) Strange Situation.
64. When infants turn their heads and suck in response to a touch on the cheek, they are demonstrating the:
A) Moro reflex.
B) rooting reflex.
C) sucking reflex.
D) thrashing reflex.